Name: _____________________________	Date: ________________

VTNE Nursing Review

1. Presently, which of the following are examples of canine blood types?

a. A

b. DEA 1.1

c. DEA 1.2

d. both b and c

2. If you have to draw blood from the donoa, where is the best location that you can draw it?

a. Cephalic vein

b. Femoral artery

c. Cranial vena cava

d. Jugular vein

3. Possible signs of a negative blood-transfusion reaction include:

a. Vomiting, fast heart rate, low blood pressure

b. Salivation, muscle tremors, and fever

c. Dry cough and respiratory distress

d. All of the above

4. In order to qualify as a blood donor, a cat must have a minimal PCV of:

a. 28%

b. 35%

c. 40%

d. 55%

5. What type of reaction is often transient?

a. Nonhemolytic

b. Acute

c. Hemolytic

d. Delayed

6. Cats can donate a maximum of ______ mL of blood at one time.

a. 60 mL

b. 50 mL

c. 30 mL

d. 20 mL

7. In order to qualify as a blood donor, a dog must have a minimal PCV of:

a. 40%

b. 60%

c. 75%

d., 20%

8. _______ to _______ mLs of blood per kg of body weight may be drawn every three weeks form the canine donor.

a. 1 to 10 mLs

b. 5 to 10 mLs

c. 10 to 20 mLs

d. 15 to 25 mLs

9. All of the following are indications for a blood transfusion EXCEPT:

a. Trauma

b. Surgery

c. Defects of coagulation

d. Low PCV

10. Once a blood container has been opened, the stored blood should be used within:

a. 12 hours

b. 24 hours

c. 48 hours

d, 72 hours

11. A major crossmatch consists of:

a. Recipient blood and donor plasma

b. Recipient plasma and donor blood

c. Plasma from both the donor and the recipient

d. Blood from both the donor and the recipient

12. The most common type of feline blood in the U.S. is:

a. DEA 1.1

b. DEA 1.2

c. Type A

d. Type B

13. Patients with severe dehydration will most benefit from this type of fluid therapy:

a. Subcutaneous

b. Intravenous

c. Intraosseous

d. Intraperitoneal

14. This type of fluid administration is not commonly used in dogs and cats and can be very dangerous if an organ is accidentally hit.

a. Subcutaneous

b. Intravenous

c. Intraosseous

d. Intraperitoneal

15. The most common type of fluids used to replace body fluids are:

a. Hypotonic crystalloids

b. Hypertonic crystalloids

c. Isotonic crystalloids

d. Isotonic colloids

16. Which of the following are examples of insensible losses?

a. Respiration

b. Feces

c. Cutaneous losses

d. All of the above

Please match the fluid with its classification:

A. Crystalloids

B. Colloids

17. _______ Plasma

18. _______ Hetastarch

19. _______ LRS

20. _______ Oxyglobin

21. _______ Sodium Chloride

22. _______ Blood

Please match the following fluid losses with they type of loss it is classified as: (answers may be used more than once).

A. Sensible Losses

B. Insensible Losses

C. Contemporary Losses

23. ________ Vomiting

24. ________ Urine output

25. ________ Diarrhea

26. ________ Respiration

27. ________ Cutaneous losses

28. A vomiting patient should generally NOT receive medications:

a. Orally

b. Intravenously

c. Subcutaneously

d. Intramuscularly

29. What term is applied to an animal needing oxygen supplementation?

a. Anemic

b. Hyperpnea

c. Hypocapnea

d. Hypoxic

30. The skin turgor test is not accurate in animals that:

a. Have recently lost weight

b. Are dehydrated

c. Are pregnant

d. Are overweight

31. When the body maintains a dynamic equilibrium, this is called:

a. Pulmonary edema

b. Hematopoiesis

c. Cellular Respiration

d. Homeostasis

32. Unoxygenated blood enters the heart where?

a. Right atrium

b. Right ventricle

c. Left atrium

d. Left ventricle

33. The specific sequence of electrical conduction through the heart is:

a. SA node, Bundle of His, AV node, Interatrial and internodal conduction tracts, Left and right

bundle Branches, Purkinje Fibers.

b. SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Interatrial and internodal conduction tracts, Left and right

Bundle Branches, Purkinje Fibers.

c. SA node, Interatrial and internodal conduction tracts, AV node, Bundle of His, Left and right

Bundle Branches, Purkinje Fibers.,

d. SA node, AV node, Interatrial and internodal conduction tracts, Left and right Bundle

Branches, Bundle of His, Purkinje Fibers.

34. During polarization, what is pumped out of the cell?

a. Cations

b. Anions

c. Blood

d. Neutrons

35. This property of cardiac muscle is related to the fact that the heart muscle will not respond to external stimuli during its period of contraction.

a. Conductivity

b. Reliability

c. Refractoriness

d. Excitability

36. The P wave portion of the ECG complex corresponds to:

a. Ventricular Contraction

b. Atrial contraction

c. Atrial repolarization

d. Ventricular Repolarization

37. The QRS complex of the ECG corresponds to:

a. Atrial Contraction

b. Ventricular Depolarization

c. Ventricular Repolarization

d. Atrial Repolarization

38. An upward deflect on the ECG tracing is produced:

a. When electrical impulses are traveling toward a negative electrode

b. When electrical impulses are traveling toward a positive electrode

c. When there is no electrical spread through the heart

d. None of the above

39. When administering the ABC’s of CPR, what does C stand for?

a. Circulation

b. Conduction

c. Contraction

d. Correlation

40. What place may be best to assess for a pulse?

a. Jugular Vein

b. Femoral Artery

c. Cephalic Artery

d. Brachiacephalic Vein

41. DEA stands for (as pertaining to veterinary medicine):

a. Dog Erythrocyte Antibody

b. Dog Erythrocyte Antigen

c. Dirofilaria Erythrocyte Antigen

d. Dog Enveloping Antihistamine

42. The use of _________ approximately 30 minutes before a blood transfusion may reduce adverse transfusion reactions.

a. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride

b. Dexdormitor

c. Diazepam

d. Dopamine

43. What should be done to blood products prior to administration.

a. They should be heated in the microwave for 10 seconds

b. They should be administered in a slightly chilled form

c. They should be warmed to room temperature

d. None of the above

44. The canine “Universal donor” is:

a. DEA 1.1 positive

b. DEA 1.2 positive

c. DEA 1.1 negative

d. Type A

45. The canine “universal recipient” is:

a. DEA 1.1 positive

b. DEA 1.2 positive

c. DEA 1.1 negative

d. Type A

46. The feline ”universal donor” is:

a. DEA 1.1 positive

b. DEA 1.1 negative

c. Type A

d. None of the above

47. Sudden death may occur in cats that are given the wrong type of blood because:

a. Cats must obtain DEA 1.1 negative blood

b. Cats are born without antibodies to specific blood types

c. Cats are born with antibodies against blood types they do not have

d. Cats must receive Type A blood

48. A laboratory test that predicts a transfusion recipient’s response to a donor’s RBCs and plasma by detecting any serum (plasma) incompatibility between the donor and the recipient is termed:

a. Blood typing

b. Crossmatchig

c. Agglutination

d. None of the above

49. Sudden death may occur in cats that are given the wrong type of blood because:

a. Cats must obtain DEA 1.1 negative blood

b. Cats are born without antibodies to specific blood types

c. Cats are born with antibodies against blood types they do not have

d. Cats must receive Type A blood

50. The term that means “pertaining to a condition that is temporary” is:

a. Transient

b. Antigen

c. Precipitate

d. Sensitization

51. The more H+, the more ________ the substance:

a. Acidic

b. Basic

c. Alkaline

d. None of the above

52. The normal pH of the blood is:

a. 6.5-6.8

b. 7.35-7.45

c. 7.45-7.55

d. 7.0-7.25

53. This process results in a lowered pH from accumulation of ketones or lactic acids in the blood and diminishes the body’s ability to neutralize acids.

a. Metabolic acidosis

b. Metabolic alkalosis

c. Respiratory acidosis

d. Respiratory alkalosis

54. This process is characterized when there is a greater amount of carbon dioxide production than excretion in the body.

a. Respiratory alkalosis

b. Respiratory acidosis

c. Metabolic alkalosis

d. Metabolic acidosis

55. The term “hypercapnia” refers to:

a. Too much oxygen in the blood

b. Too much carbon dioxide in the blood

c. Too little oxygen in the blood

d. Too little carbon dioxide in the blood

56. Hypovolemia may cause this imbalance:

a. Alkalosis

b. Acidosis

c. Hypokalemia

d. None of the above

57. When more H+ is retained in the blood to balance excess Cl-, then this may occur:

a. Hyperkalemia alkalosis

b. Hyperchloremia alkalosis

c. Hyperkalemia acidosis

d. Hyperchloremia acidosis

58. Leukopenia refers to:

a. Low red blood cells

b. Low serum protein

c. Low white blood cells

d. Low lymphocytes

59. How soon after injury is wound healing initiated?

a. Immediately

b. 30 minutes

c. 2 to 4 hour

d. 6 to 8 hours

60. Granulation tissue, the red tissue underlying a scab, is made up of:

a. Fibroblasts

b. Fibrous tissue

c. New capillaries

d. All of the above

61. Once a full-thickness layer of skin has formed at the edges of a round, the process that acts to further reduce the size of the wound is:

a. Macrophage activity

b. Wound contraction

c. Scab formation

d. Scar formation

62. Which factor is important to consider when making a decision about how to treat a wound?

a. Time since the injury

b. Animal’s physical status

c. Location of the wound

d. All the above

63. Allowing a wound to heal completely without surgical closure is known as:

a. First intention healing

b. Second intention healing

c. Third intention healing

d. Fourth intention healing

64. When discharging a patient wearing a cast, client education is essential and should include instructing the client to:

a. Check the animal’s toes daily for warmth, discoloration, and swelling

b. Check the cast daily for a foud odor

c. Observe for areas of skin chafing from the cast

d. All the above

65. An injury in which skin and varying amounts of ligaments, tendons, muscle and bone are torn off a limb is commonly known as:

a. Dragging injury

b. Descarifying injury

c. Degloving injury

d. Necrotic injury

66. Which statement about decubital ulcers is most accurate?

a. Active, well-muscled, healthy animals are at the greatest risk for the formation of decubital ulcers.

b. Decubital ulcers are generally very easy to treat

c. Once a decubital ulcer develops, it is best treated with a tight, occlusive bandage, and the animal should be kept immobile and recumbent to allow the ulcer to heal.

d. Decubital ulcers form over bony prominences

67. Proud flesh is:

a. The term applied to the tissue in a severe laceration less than 6 hours old

b. The necrotic tissue trimmed from the edges of a severe, full-thickness burn

c. The bright red tissue seen in a decubital ulcer

d, Excessive granulation tissue that can form on the limbs of horses during wound healing.

68. “Dead space” is:

a. Necrotic or dead tissue in a wound

b. A large gap between the cut tissue edges of a wound

c. Spece remaining in tissues as a result of failure of proper closure that allows the accumulation of blood or serum

d. A boarding kennel after all the dogs go home at the end of a busy holiday weekend.

69. When you are performing venipuncture, always use the ______ needle possible for the vein chosen and direct the bevel _________.

a. Largest, upward

b. Smallest, upward

c. Largest, downward

d. Smallest, downward

70. An _______ catheter is used to infuse small volumes of fluid into a vein and is usually in place for only a few minutes.

a. Butterfly

b. Over-the-needle

c. Through-the-needle

d. Guide-wire

71. How might you administer an anti-seizure drug to a convulsing animal in which you are unable to access a vein?

a. Intrarectally

b. Intranasally

c. Intraperitoneally

d. A and B

72. Flashback is the term most often applied to:

a. Urine entering a catheter during catheter placement

b. Blood entering a needle hub or catheter during intravenous procedures

c. Fluid flowing out of a nasogastric tube spontaneously

d. A veterinary technician’s memory of a procedure learned in school that is recalled while at his/her first job.

73. The term clean stick is applied to:

a. A vessel being punctured only once during an intravenous procedure

b. A tree branch before you and your dog play fetch with it

c. An intramuscular injection in a food animal that does not reduce the value of the carcass

d. An intramuscular injection in which no blood is aspirated before medication administration

74. The common term for gingival is:

a. Cavity

b. Palate

c. Gums

d. Tongue

75. What instrument is used to measure the gingival-sulcus depth?

a. Hand scaler

b. Dental explorer

c. Periodontal probe

d. Curette

76. For the best results, owners should brush their pets’ teeth:

a. Daily

b. Every other day

c. Twice weekly

d. Once a week

77. Your CTVT book states that the correct attire for the technician performing a dental cleaning should include the following:

a. mask, eye protection, and lab coat

b. mask, shoe covering, gloves, and lab coat

c. mask, gloves, eye protection, hair cap, and a lab coat

d. mask, gloves, eye protection, and hair cap

78. Labia means:

a. biting surface of the anterior teeth

b. chewing surfaces of the caudal teeth

c. toward the apex of the tooth root

d. Surface of the tooth nearest the lips

79. The mildest case of periodontal disease is graded as class__?

a. 0

b. I

c. II

d. III

80. Approximately what percentage of dogs have periodontal disease by the age of 3?

a. 50 %

b. 60%

c. 70%

d. 80%

81. Once plaque mineralizes, it becomes a substance known as:

a. Periodontitis

b., Gingivitis

c. Calculus

d. Dentin

82. How soon does plaque start to mineralize after it forms?

a. Immediately

b. 1-2 days

c. 3-5 days

d. within 6 weeks

83. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate?

a. Older dogs are more likely to have periodontal disease

b. Small, brachycephalic breeds are more likely to develop periodontal disease.

c. Dogs with softer diets have better oral health than those on hard kibble.

d. Both a and b

84. In general, the more ____ the saliva, the more rapid the build up of plaque.

a. Alkaline

b. Basic

c. Acidic

d. Neutral

85. Moderate periodontitis with moderate attachment loss is characterized as this grade of periodontal disease?

a. Grade I

b. Grade II

c. Grade III

d. Grade IV

86. Slight tooth movement is classified as what grade of tooth motility?

a. Grade I

b. Grade II

c. Grade III

d. Grade IV

87. When using an ultrasonic scaler, what is the maximum time it should be left in contact with a tooth?

a. 10 seconds

b. 15 seconds

c. 60 seconds

d. 30 seconds

88. When excess gingiva is removed, this is termed:

a. Gingivectomy

b. Root planing

c. Root curettage

d. Extraction

89. Pulse therapy is:

a. Use of antibiotics for 5 days of each week

b. What happens during CPR to find a pulse

c The use of a defibrillator

d. None of the above

90. This antibiotic may be used before or after a dental cleaning.

a. Rimadyl

b. Tramadol

c. Buprenorphine

d. Clindamycin

91. A broken bone in which there is a wound that penetrates the skin and may also be called a compound fracture is termed:

a. Closed fracture

b. Physeal fracture

c. Avulsion fracture

d. Open fracture

92. A broken bone that is splintered or crushed into multiple pieces is termed:

a. Closed fracture

b. Avulsion fracture

c. Comminuted fracture

d. Physeal fracture

93. A bulging deposit around the area of a bone fracture that may eventually become bone is called:

a. Oblique

b. Greenstick fracture

c. Comminuted

d. Callus

94. A bone that is broken only on one side and the other side is bent; also called an incomplete fracture is termed:

a. Greenstick fracture

b. Avulsion fracture

c. Transverse fracture

d. Oblique fracture

95. The act of holding, suturing, or fastening a bone in a fixed position, usually with a bandage or cast is called:

a. Immobilization

b. Callus

c. Closed fracture

d. Transfixation

96. The type of fracture that is a broken bone diagonal to the long axis is termed:

a. Oblique fracture

b. Transverse fracture

c. Greenstick fracture

d. None of the above

97. The type of fracture that is produced when the bones are pressed together is termed:

a. Compression fracture

b. Physeal fracture

c. Immobilization

d. Manipulation

98. The attempted realignment of the bone involved in a fracture or dislocation, also known as a reduction is termed:

a. Manipulation

b. Immobilizaton

c. Compression

d. None of the above

99. The use of plates and pins to stabilize a fracture from the outside is termed:

a. External Fracture stabilizer

b. External Skeletal fixators

c. Robert Jones Fixator

d. ETF

100. What does RVT stand for?

a. Really Very Tired

b. Royally Very Tortured

c. Registered Veterinary Tested

d. Registered Veterinary Technician